Anorectal Disease – Post Test

With regard to the anatomy of the anorectum, which one of the following is correct?

A 34-year-old male presents to the ED with rectal pain. On examination you elicit tenderness to the right buttock. Routine blood tests reveal a white cell count (WCC) of 18, CRP of 80 and temperature of 37.9°C.

What is the likely diagnosis?

Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to second-degree haemorrhoids?

A 32-year-old man presents with deep, throbbing pain in the perianal region and a low-grade fever. On examination, there is no obvious external swelling or erythema. A CT scan reveals a fluid collection near the the anorectum.

Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?

A patient presents to the ED with small amounts of bright red rectal bleeding and excruciating pain on defecation, the pain is lasting for 1-2 hours afterwards.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

The patient has a normal barium enema and his symptoms are attributed to haemorrhoids.

Which one of the following is the best treatment option?

With regard to the anorectum, which one of the following is correct?

A patient presents to the ED with a painful perianal swelling. Examination reveals a purple tender perianal swelling consistent with a thrombosed external haemorrhoid.

Which one of the following would be your subsequent management plan?

Which of the following anorectal conditions requires urgent surgical referral or admission?

A 50-year-old presents to the ED with a 1-month history of painless rectal bleeding. Examination reveals second-degree haemorrhoids.

Which one of the following is an appropriate management plan?