A 26-year-old man presents with severe elbow pain following a fall onto an outstretched hand. A brief assessment finds the elbow to be swollen and generally tender with a grossly reduced range of movement.
Which of the following does NOT constitute part of initial management?
Which one of the following is NOT a recognised complication of elbow dislocation?
There is no neurovascular deficit on examination and the patient consents to joint reduction. This is performed after further analgesia and adequate sedation and is clinically successful.
Which of the following statements is true regarding further management?