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A 28-year-old man presents with a swollen and painful proximal interphalangeal joint injury (PIPJ) to his left index finger after a basketball game. He is maximally tender over the dorsal aspect, but has full range of active movement and no demonstrable PIPJ instability. There is no external wound. X-rays do not reveal any fractures.
Which one of the following is correct?
A 60-year old man presents with a mallet deformity.
Which one of the following statements regarding this injury is correct?
Regarding flexor tendon anatomy of the hand, which one of the following statements is correct?
Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to nerve injuries of the hand?
Regarding hand extensor tendon anatomy, which of the following statements is correct?
An unconscious but stable patient has several wounds to his palm from glass. You wonder about the integrity of his flexor tendons.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A 19-year-old right-handed unemployed male attends the ED at 2am. He admits he was involved in a fight outside a public house. He has a swollen dominant right hand with an open wound over the dorsal aspect overlying the MCP joint of the little finger.
In the management of this injury, which of the following statements are correct?
Select one or more options.
With regard to fingertip injuries, which one of the following statements is correct?
Which of the following hand injuries require urgent hand specialist referral?
Select one or more options.
When examining the thumb MCP joint for injury, which of the following statements are correct?
Select one or more options.